Summary: Can there be a reasonabe grounding of moral principles without objective moral standards? If there are objective moral laws, does that not follow that there is an objective moral law giver? How does an atheist even say that one thing is good and another is evil? Does the atheist have to stand on the lap of god to slap him in the face? Nope. Not even close. Join me as I rip this bunch of nonsense to shreds. Isn't it obvious that moral principles are NOT objective? Isn't is obvious that moral laws are imaginary? Atheists judge things are good and bad on the merit they present. Plus, I'll discuss my Theory of the Moral Faggot. You'll have to tune in to figure that out! Plus, your calls. Equals audible ear-gasmic times!!
